The free grace and Titus 1:15-16

"To the pure, all things are pure, but to the defiled and unbelieving, nothing is pure; but both their minds and their consciences are defiled. They profess to know God, but they deny him by their works. They are detestable, disobedient, unfit for any good work." - Titus 1:15-16

First of all I would like to say that Paul writes similar language in which he writes in Romans 14 and perhaps elsewhere. The kingdom of God is not about eating or drinking, but about righteousness and peace and joy in the Holy Spirit. To the pure all things are pure. Nothing can separate you dear Christian who have now received Christ as Saviour from the love of God. There is no clean thing to abstain from.
However, second, for the unbelieving one nothing is pure. All things are unclean to him. While they may take the things that God created as good and distort them for their own evil purposes and intentions ultimately they are damnable to God.
Thirdly, about these men although they may profess to know God as in the Gospel, they in fact deny him by their works. Please read this carefully. This means not that they sinned necessarily did things against God's holy character or nature - although that may be true. However, it is just as much true that they as the Jews did in Romans 10 that although they have a zeal for God, but not according to knowledge. Scripture says that Christ is the end of the law for all who believe. What this text tells us is that salvation is by grace alone and not by works. No man can boast before God's sovereign grace. However, these men in their pride self-righteousness - perhaps circumcising themselves (Judiazers) - denied the God, who saves us in Christ alone by grace alone through faith alone, by their works. (I hope this is clear please if you have any questions ask)

False accusations of the High and Ultra-High Calvinist who reject Common Grace

"I am not sure that calling persons 'hyper-Calvinists' means much except that you disagree with them. Does it mean that they say 'providence' instead of 'common grace'? Does it mean that they deny that God loves the non-elect? Does it mean that their version of covenant theology is different from yours?"

Philippians 2:5-11

The question is on this early Hymn (whether compromised - made up by Paul or the Church) whether the exaltation is because of Christ Obedience or something else or could it be both obedience and something else?

Christ obeyed by humbling Himself and taking on a form of a human being and submitting himself to death even death on a cross. Therefore God highly exalted him. Although, this is a great interpretation of the text and I think we read in Hebrews 12:2 that Christ received his reward or something like that, I will say however that this is the secondary issue or reasoning why God exalted him. With the first reasoning being the something else which the text does say - That although Christ was in the form of God He did not take equality with God a thing to be grasp but made himself nothing taking upon himself a form of a slave. Now the text is clear Christ was in the form of God I have no need to go through the meaning of this word. However, my goal is to show you that I think this is the reason why Christ was highly exalted not because He was obedient to death - that would imply to say that because one obeys God's law that God will automatically grant a high estate. But, my position on this matter is not that this reward idea is not grounded in the text that is probably true as well. But my position is that the reason why Christ was highly exalted after He submitted Himself to death on the Cross is because of who He was and is that Christ is the eternal God that is above all things and goes before all things. This means that because It was Christ who is God and humbled himself - although he had every right not too - and becoming man (something in which most religions had never taught - that God himself becomes one of us) and after having obeyed God to the point of death even death on a cross, God highly exalted him because He is God. Jesus prayed that God would give Him the glory which he had before in eternity past. (I hope that is clear)

Is my positioning historical? I think so as Athanasius says

"For if being God he became man, and having come down from the height he is said 'to be exalted,' where is he exalted, being God? It is clear that since God is the highest, his Word is also the highest. Therefore, how is one who is in the Father able to be exalted more and be 'like the Father in all things'? Therefore he is without need of every addition, and he is not as these things have been written, what was the need that he humbled himself in order that he should seek to receive that which he has?"

Or elsewhere, 

"And, if now he had his improvement according to them, remembering his own glory before the world and above the world, how did the Son say, 'glorify me, O Father, with the glory which I had with you before the existence of the world' (John 17:5)? But if now he has been exalted according to them, how before this time 'did he bend the heavens and come down' (Ps. 18:9) and again, 'The highest gave his voice (psalm 18:13)? Therefore, if even before the existence of the world the Son had glory and ' was Lord of glory and the Highest' and came down from heaven and is always worshiped; then having come down he was not improved, but rather he improved the things which needed improvement. If he has descended to effect their improvement, he did not have the title of Son and God as a reward; rather, he himself has made us sons to the Father, and deified men, having become man himself."

John 1:1 and The Deity of Christ

"Some have claimed that 'the Word was God' merely identifies Jesus as a god rather than identifying Jesus as God, because the Greek word for God, Theos, is not preceded by a definite article. However, in Greek grammar, Colwell's Rule indicatesthat the translation 'a god' is not required, for lack of an article does not necessarilyindicate indefiniteness ('a god') but rather specifies that a given term ('God') is the predicate nominative of a definite subject ('The Word'). This means that the context must determine the meaning of Theos here, and the context indicates that this 'God' that John is talking about ('the Word') is the one true God who created all things . . . "

On Judging Classes of Men

When Jesus and the Apostles say do not judge this is in relation to the fact hat all men without distinction are part of the body. We are not to judge those who are suffering or who are poor or rich. This is what the Hebrews did. But those who mourn let us mourn and those who rejoice let us rejoice. We are to be truth lovers and prudent as light has no fellowship with darkness. Christ has died for all of His elect (his body, who is the Church also known as Israel of God) so that all would live and glorify God.